MCAT Exam plan - Medical College Admission Test - 2023 Updated: 2024
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MCAT Medical College Admission Test - 2023
Test Detail:
The MCAT (Medical College Admission Test) is a standardized exam administered by the Association of American Medical Colleges (AAMC) in the United States. It is designed to assess the knowledge, skills, and aptitude required for success in medical school. Here is a detailed overview of the MCAT, including the number of questions and time, course outline, exam objectives, and exam syllabus.
Number of Questions and Time:
The MCAT consists of multiple-choice questions divided into four sections. The number of questions and time allotted for each section are as follows:
1. Chemical and Physical Foundations of Biological Systems:
- Number of Questions: Approximately 59 questions
- Time Limit: 95 minutes
2. Critical Analysis and Reasoning Skills:
- Number of Questions: Approximately 53 questions
- Time Limit: 90 minutes
3. Biological and Biochemical Foundations of Living Systems:
- Number of Questions: Approximately 59 questions
- Time Limit: 95 minutes
4. Psychological, Social, and Biological Foundations of Behavior:
- Number of Questions: Approximately 59 questions
- Time Limit: 95 minutes
Additionally, there are unscored trial questions and a 10-minute optional break after each section.
Course Outline:
The MCAT covers a wide range of topics in the sciences, critical analysis, and behavioral sciences. The specific course outline includes the following components:
1. Chemical and Physical Foundations of Biological Systems:
- General chemistry principles and concepts
- Organic chemistry principles and reactions
- Physics principles and applications in biological systems
- Biochemistry and molecular biology
2. Critical Analysis and Reasoning Skills:
- Reading comprehension
- Analytical and critical thinking
- Evaluation of arguments and passages
3. Biological and Biochemical Foundations of Living Systems:
- Cellular biology and molecular biology
- Genetics and genomics
- Microbiology and immunology
- Anatomy and physiology
4. Psychological, Social, and Biological Foundations of Behavior:
- Introductory psychology principles and concepts
- Introductory sociology principles and concepts
- Social determinants of behavior
- Biological basis of behavior
Exam Objectives:
The objectives of the MCAT are to assess the candidate's readiness for medical school and to provide a standardized measure of their knowledge and skills. The specific objectives of the exam include:
- Evaluating scientific knowledge in the fields of biology, chemistry, physics, and biochemistry.
- Assessing critical thinking and reasoning skills necessary for medical practice.
- Evaluating the ability to analyze and interpret scientific data.
- Assessing understanding of psychological, social, and behavioral factors that influence health and healthcare.
Exam Syllabus:
The MCAT syllabus outlines the specific content areas and competencies that will be tested. The syllabus includes:
- Detailed breakdown of the content areas for each section of the exam.
- Specific topics and subtopics within each content area.
- Key competencies and skills required for success in medical school.
It is important to note that the MCAT is a comprehensive exam that covers a broad range of scientific and reasoning concepts. The exam content is based on knowledge typically acquired in introductory-level college courses. The AAMC provides official resources and practice materials to help candidates prepare for the exam.
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Question: 775 Section 1
Glycogen storage disease type V, also known as GSD-V or McArdle disease, is an autosomal recessive disease that results in the
deficiency of myophosphorylase, an isoform of glycogen phosphorylase found in muscle cells. Patients with GSD-V experience
severe muscle cramps after strenuous exercise and exercise intolerance.
Physicians may order two histology stains of the patient's muscle tissue in order to aid in the diagnosis (see Figure 1):
(A) A Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain uses periodic acid to detect carbohydrates in tissues. The reaction of the acid with sugar
cleaves vicinal diols creating ketone and/or aldehyde fragments, the latter of which then reacts with the Schiff reagent to give a purple
color;
(B) A phosphorylase stain identifies the presence of the enzyme using a dark blue color indicator.
Figure 1A. Comparative histochemistry of GSD-V and healthy individual.
PAS stain of muscle tissue shows an accumulation of glycogen in the GSD-V individual (top) compared to the control (bottom). B)
Phosphorylase stain of muscle tissue reveals an absence of phosphorylase in the GSD-V individual (top). Despite initial pain during
exercise, many patients with GSD-V have been able to increase their exercise tolerance by engaging in moderate periods of aerobic
exercise. Muscle pain and fatigue subsides after a few minutes, a response that researchers call the "second wind" phenomenon.
Patients who experienced "second wind" typically experienced lowered heart rate and a reported decrease in exercise effort after 7-10
minutes. A similar effect was seen in the same patients after an intravenous infusion of glucose.
Figure 2. Measured heart rates in two GSD-V patients during sustained exercise.
Two subjects were asked to ride stationary bicycles at a steady rate over the course of 40 minutes. The subjects' heart rates were
measured continuously, with high and low values coinciding with 7-minute intervals. Glucose was injected intravenously after 21
minutes. SW = Second Wind.
Adapted from Bhavaraju-Sanka R, Howard J. Jr, Chahin N (2014). SOJ Neurol 1(1), 1-3. and Haller RG, Vissing J. Arch Neurol.
2002;59(9):1395-1402.
For a patient affected by GSD-V, which one of these scenarios describes the concentrations of metabolism products in muscle cells
after exercise?
A. Increased concentrations of ADP, but decreased concentrations of Pi.
B. Increased concentrations of ATP, but decreased concentrations of Pi.
C. Decreased concentrations of ATP, and increased concentrations of Pi.
D. Decreased concentrations of ADP, and increased concentrations of Pi.
Answer: C
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Because of the deficiency in glycogen phosphorylase, glucose is not released from glycogen, which decreases the production of ATP
by glycolysis. Thus, any
ATP used in muscles during exercise is not replenished, leading to an accumulation of ADP and Pi.
Question: 776 Section 1
Glycogen storage disease type V, also known as GSD-V or McArdle disease, is an autosomal recessive disease that results in the
deficiency of myophosphorylase, an isoform of glycogen phosphorylase found in muscle cells. Patients with GSD-V experience
severe muscle cramps after strenuous exercise and exercise intolerance.
Physicians may order two histology stains of the patient's muscle tissue in order to aid in the diagnosis (see Figure 1):
(A) A Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain uses periodic acid to detect carbohydrates in tissues. The reaction of the acid with sugar
cleaves vicinal diols creating ketone and/or aldehyde fragments, the latter of which then reacts with the Schiff reagent to give a purple
color;
(B) A phosphorylase stain identifies the presence of the enzyme using a dark blue color indicator.
Figure 1A. Comparative histochemistry of GSD-V and healthy individual.
PAS stain of muscle tissue shows an accumulation of glycogen in the GSD-V individual (top) compared to the control (bottom). B)
Phosphorylase stain of muscle tissue reveals an absence of phosphorylase in the GSD-V individual (top). Despite initial pain during
exercise, many patients with GSD-V have been able to increase their exercise tolerance by engaging in moderate periods of aerobic
exercise. Muscle pain and fatigue subsides after a few minutes, a response that researchers call the "second wind" phenomenon.
Patients who experienced "second wind" typically experienced lowered heart rate and a reported decrease in exercise effort after 7-10
minutes. A similar effect was seen in the same patients after an intravenous infusion of glucose.
Figure 2. Measured heart rates in two GSD-V patients during sustained exercise.
Two subjects were asked to ride stationary bicycles at a steady rate over the course of 40 minutes. The subjects' heart rates were
measured continuously, with high and low values coinciding with 7-minute intervals. Glucose was injected intravenously after 21
minutes. SW = Second Wind.
Adapted from Bhavaraju-Sanka R, Howard J. Jr, Chahin N (2014). SOJ Neurol 1(1), 1-3. and Haller RG, Vissing J. Arch Neurol.
2002;59(9):1395-1402.
The "second wind" phenomena experienced by GSD-V patients is most likely due to a(n):
A. activation of phosphofructosekinase-1.
B. decrease in venous lactic acid.
C. metabolic switching to oxidative phosphorylation.
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D. increase in insulin.
Answer: C
In GSV patients, since glycogen is not broken down into glucose due to a deficiency of myophosphorylase, the body switches to
aerobic exercise very quickly.
Once anaerobic exercise gives way to aerobic exercise, glycolysis is no longer the primary source of ATP production. Aerobic
exercise allows fatty acids to be used as an energy source, generating ATP from oxidative phosphorylation.
Question: 777 Section 1
Fluoroscopy is an imaging technique that uses X-rays to obtain real-time moving images of the interior of the body. A patient was
asked to perform cycles of deep inspiration and deep expiration. Fluoroscopy was used to measure the linear velocity of the
movement of the diaphragm and the data was plotted against time.
The origin in Figure 1 is the reference time 0 when the diaphragm was essentially in its equilibrium position.
At what time after t = 0 is the displacement of the diaphragm at a minimum?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C
To determine the displacement (NOT distance), take the area under the graph. The 2 similar sized trapezoids, one positive and the
other negative, cancel each other. At time C, the diaphragm is back or near to its starting position; hence, its displacement has zero
magnitude at that moment.
Question: 778 Section 1
The value of the water dissociation constant K
varies with temperature. Its value is normally given as 1.00 ? 10 mol dm at room temperature but 1.00 ? 10
14
6
13
w
mol
dm
at 60?° C. What is the pH of pure water at 60 ?° C?
-6
A. Equal to 7.0 thus the water is neutral.
B. Less than 7.0 thus the water is acidic.
C. Less than 7.0 but the water is basic.
D. Less than 7.0 but the water is neutral.
Answer: O " HD
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It is not necessary to calculate anything to solve this problem but we will go through the steps.
The dissociation of water (note carefully that the ratio of the products is 1:1; also keep in mind that this is the basis of the neutrality of
pure water: acid units = base units):
H -
O + H -
O -
+ OH
+
-
The expression for the self-ionization of water or the water dissociation constant:
K -
= [H
O -
][OH
] = [H
][OH
]
+
+
w
At room temperature, keeping in mind that the dissociation of the ions is 1:1, we get: 10
= [H
][OH
] = [H
]
. And so [H
] = 10
and then log[H
] = 7 = pH.
14
+
+
+
7
+
Doing the identical math but using K
= 10
yields a pH of 6.5. BUT because the ratio of the ions is still 1:1 (if not, you would not have done the calculation) thus
13
w
it must be neutral.
Question: 779 Section 1
A spherical air bubble is rising in a test tube which is illuminated from one side by a flashlight. What happens to a ray of light
incident on the air bubble at A?
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A. Reflection at both surfaces
B. Reflection at A; no reflection at B
C. Reflection at B; no reflection at A
D. no reflection at either surface
Answer: A
Reflection is the process by which light rays bounce back into a medium from a surface with another medium. Note that there are 2
surfaces, both A and B, which meet the criterion for reflection. Remember: just because some light reflects, does not mean that all of
the light reflects. Specifically, some of the light will transmit completely through the bubble while some would have been reflected at
A and some at B.
Question: 780 Section 1
The isoelectric point of glycine is 6.0. When glycine is in a buffer with a pH of 6.0, which form predominates?
A. H N CH COO +
B. H NCH COOH
C. H N CH COOH +
D. H NCH COO
Answer: A
At pH 6.0, the isoelectric point, glycine is electrically neutral. This corresponds to the zwitterion form shown below. (Note that the
form in answer B, though commonly written as short hand, is impossible to find in nature.)
H -
N -
CH
COO
+
Note the logic of the above zwitterion: the base component (the amino group) has accepted a proton from the acid component (the
carboxylic acid COOH group).
Answer choice C dominates below the isoelectric point (e.g. in a more protonated environment), and answer choice D dominates
above the isoelectric point (e.g. in a less protonated environment).
Although it is possible to get a question like this on the real exam, it would be considered relatively easy! For the real exam, you will
certainly have some questions involving amino acids that are dependent on your memory of the features of the side chains of the 20
common protein-building amino acids, how their charges change with pH, and their 3-letter and 1-letter representations. We will
certainly be exploring all of these issues in the exams to follow. Hopefully, this will be a reminder following your MCAT content
review:
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Question: 781 Section 1
Consider the following structure.
Which of the following is the most accurate description of the structure provided?
A. Dipeptide
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B. Tripeptide
C. Tetrapeptide
D. Pentapeptide
Answer: C
First a note regarding nomenclature: The shortest peptides are dipeptides, consisting of 2 amino acids joined by a single peptide bond,
followed by tripeptides (3 amino acids, 2 peptide bonds), tetrapeptides (4 amino acids, 3 peptide bonds), pentapeptides (5 amino acids,
4 peptide bonds), etc. A peptide (= amide) bond is a covalent bond formed when the carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the
amino group of another. In other words, focus on the number of times that you see C=O connected to N, as long as that bond is
WITHIN the molecule (i.e. between amino acids). Since there are 3 such instances in the molecular structure provided, given the
information provided above regarding 3 peptide bonds, the molecule must be a tetrapeptide. Going from left to right in the structure
in the image, here are the 4 amino acids: Tyr-Pro-Phe-Pro-NH
Going deeper, the rules above apply to linear oligo/polypeptides. However, cyclic oligo/polypeptides will always have 1 additional
bond where the amino end and carboxyl end bond to complete the ring.
Beyond Required Assumed Knowledge (but the following includes some commonly explored ideas in MCAT Biochemistry passages):
The tetrapeptide in the image is morphiceptin. It is an opioid (= a selective opioid receptor agonist/ligand) so that it has analgesic
effects like opium and those effects are reversed by naloxone (= opioid inhibitor; blocker; used to block the effects of opioids
especially in overdose).
Question: 782 Section 1
An automatic external defibrillator (AED) is simply a series of capacitors used to store a very large charge, which is then discharged
through the patients chest in a short time. If the capacitor in an AED is fully charged and the AED is no longer connected to the power
source, what will happen to the energy stored in the AED if the dielectric (k = 1.5) is removed?
A. increase by a factor of 1.5
B. increase by a factor of 2.25
C. decrease by a factor of 1.5
D. decrease by a factor of v1.5
Answer: A
The MCAT will expect you to know a handful of equations for capacitors. The three needed to solve this question are:
C = ?ľ -
C = Q/V
PE = (1/2)QV
According to the first equation, we see that if the dielectric is removed, capacitance will decrease by a factor of 1.5. According to the
second equation, we see that a decreased capacitance can either be the result of a change in Q or a change in V. In this question, the
AED is no longer connected to the battery, so there is no source of additional charges. Thus, Q will remain the same and V will
increase by a factor of 1.5. Finally, by the third equation we see that if V is increased by a factor of 1.5, the potential energy will
increase by a factor of 1.5. Thus, choice (A) is the correct answer.
Question: 783 Section 1
An object rests on a plane, with an angle of incline, ?¸, an acceleration due to gravity, g, and a coefficient of friction ?ľ between the
object and the plane. Which of the following gives the acceleration of the object?
A. a = g sin ?¸
B. a = g (sin ?¸ cos ?¸)
C. a = g (cos ?¸ ?ľ sin ?¸)
D. a = g (sin ?¸ ?ľ cos ?¸)
Answer: D
The force of gravity down the plane is given by F
= mg sin ?¸.
g
The frictional force is given by F
= ?ľ mg cos ?¸.
f
MCAT-ADDITIONAL.html[8/4/2021 4:46:58 AM]
Thus, we can set up the overall equation: F
= F
F
.
net
g
f
Applying Newtons Second Law, we can rewrite the equation as: ma = F
F
.
g
f
Substituting the equations given for F
and F
we get: ma = mg sin ?¸ ?ľmg cos?¸.
f
g
Canceling out m throughout the equation and factoring out the g leaves us with: a = g (sin ?¸ ?ľ cos ?¸).
Thus, choice (D) is the right answer.
Question: 784 Section 1
Which option is not an example of vertical social mobility?
A. An individual loses his job and becomes homeless.
B. An individual is promoted to a much more powerful position within the same company.
C. An individual changes jobs and moves to a similar position at another company.
D. All options are examples of vertical social mobility.
Answer: C
Vertical social mobility involves a change in status. Moving to a similar position would not affect an individuals status.
Question: 785 Section 1
The son of a bricklayer goes to college and i) becomes a teacher at a medical school, ii) gets promoted to tenured professor, and iii)
moves across the country for a new tenured professor position at a different school. Sequentially, this man has experienced:
A. intergenerational mobility with respect to the father, horizontal mobility, horizontal mobility
B. intragenerational mobility with respect to the son, upward mobility, upward mobility
C. intergenerational mobility with respect to the father, upward mobility, horizontal mobility
D. intragenerational mobility with respect to the son, horizontal mobility, upward mobility
Answer: C
Intragenerational mobility, also called career mobility, describes a change in an individuals social standing during the course of an
individuals lifetime.
Intragenerational mobility most often occurs through promotions and demotions at work. Intergenerational mobility involves a change
in social standing across generations, such as when an upper class family loses their fortune and the next generation all become
tradesmen. Alternatively, children of a working class family might work very hard to increase their social standing through education
and career advancement. a) " incorrect. The promotion is an example of upward rather than horizontal mobility. Horizontal mobility
refers to a move within the same category of status, e.g. taking a job in a new location with equivalent title to a former job. Vertical
mobility, which may be upward or downward, refers to moving from one social level to another. b) " incorrect. The transfer is an
example of horizontal rather than vertical mobility. c) " correct. d) " incorrect. The promotion is upward mobility and the transfer is
horizontal mobility.
Question: 786 Section 1
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A psychologist conducts an experiment in which subjects are asked to learn a series of facts which are actually statements that have
been fabricated by the research team. The subjects consist of undergraduate students at the university where the experiment is being
conducted. The subjects are randomly assigned to groups that are compensated either $10 or $20 for their participation, are given
either 15 minutes or 30 minutes to learn the facts, and are asked to recall the facts either in the same room in which they learned the
facts or in a very different, unfamiliar setting.
Which of the following are dependent variables in this experiment?
I. The amount the subjects were compensated.
II. The room in which the subjects were asked to recall facts.
III. The number of facts the subjects can recall.
IV. The time the subjects were given to learn the facts.
A. II only
B. III only
C. I and IV only
D. I and III and IV only
Answer: B
In experimental design, the dependent variable is the variable being tested as a possible effect or output, whereas the independent
variables are those that are controlled by the experimenters and tested as possible causes. Here, the experimenters controlled the
compensation amount, the time to learn, and the room in which the subjects were asked to recall the information. Thus, I, II, and IV
are independent variables. The dependent variable here is III, the measured recall rate of the facts.
Question: 787 Section 1
In a fit of passion, the spectator of a political debate exclaims that welfare recipients are all lazy. The spectators thought process is an
example of:
A. prejudice.
B. discrimination.
C. ethnocentrism.
D. conflict theory.
Answer: A
Prejudice consists of inflexible and irrational attitudes held by one group about another. Discrimination is the prejudicial treatment of
an individual based on their actual or perceived membership in a certain group or category, in a way that is worse than the way
people are usually treated. While the outburst could be considered discriminatory, the thought process underlying the outburst would
be described as prejudice. Ethnocentrism refers to evaluation of others cultures based on ones own cultural norms and values. Conflict
theory refers to perspectives in sociology that emphasize the social, political, or material inequality of social groups, allowing for
macro-level analysis. a) " correct. b) " incorrect. The question is about the thought process and not the action or behavior. c) "
incorrect. The outburst is not an evaluation of anothers ethnic culture. d) " incorrect. While conflict theory perspectives do often pit
social classes against each other, this sociological perspective does not describe the thought process at work here.
Question: 788 Section 1
When preparing for the MCAT exam, a student begins studying electrochemical cells. He learns the basic information needed by
actively relating it to previous information he has learned about redox reactions. He then builds from that knowledge to learn the
advanced concepts needed. The students process is best characterized as:
A. chunking.
B. a network model.
C. maintenance rehearsal.
D. elaborative rehearsal.
Answer: D
The student is learning new information by actively relating it to old information he previously learned. This describes the elaborative
rehearsal process of learning new information (and is, incidentally, one of the best ways to study for the MCAT). Thus (D) is the
correct answer.
A: Chunking is a way of mentally dividing information into discrete whole chunks of information, thus reducing the overall number
of things to be memorized. For example, phone numbers are chunked into area code, exchange, and ending 4-digit number. For
someone learning the phone number of a neighbor (who would have the same area code and exchange), chunking the information this
way makes it much easier to remember.
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B: The network model describes one theory about how information is stored in the brain once it has been memorized. The situation
described in the question discusses the processes of memorizing new information (encoding), rather that the storage itself.
C: Maintenance rehearsal is learning something through brute repetition, with no attempt to understand meaning or actively relate the
information to previous memories.
Question: 789 Section 1
In the course of gathering data in an experiment, a researcher develops the following correlation matrix:
Table 1 Correlation Matrix -
Which of the following pairs of variables are most strongly correlated?
A. A, C
B. A, D
C. B, D
D. C, D
Answer: B
Correlation values range from +1.00 to 1.00 with +1.00 indicating perfect positive correlation and -1.00 indicating perfect negative
correlation. 0.00 indicates no relationship at all. The strength of the correlation is determined by the magnitude of the correlation
coefficient value, not its sign. Among the choices given, variables A and D have the strongest correlation from the data in the table.
Question: 790 Section 1
A teacher sets up a reward system for her elementary school students. At the end of each day, she gives a sticker to each student who
showed up on time that morning. At the end of each week, she gives a sticker to any student who got above a 90% on three quizzes in
a row. After months of this regimen, she finds that performance on the quizzes has increased significantly but that tardiness has only
decreased slightly.
Which of the following best explains the teachers observation?
A. Variable ratio schedules create the strongest responses and behavior that is the least susceptible to extinction.
B. The students had more intrinsic motivation to do well on quizzes than to show up on time.
C. The students behavior change was stronger in response to a fixed-ratio schedule than it was to a continuous reinforcement
schedule.
D. The students behavior change was stronger in response to a fixed-ratio schedule than it was to a variable-interval schedule.
Answer: C
The teacher was offering rewards on two schedules. Showing up on time was always rewarded with a sticker. Rewarding for each
instance of behavior is a continuous reinforcement schedule. She then also rewarded good quiz performance for every three quizzes.
This was a fixed-ratio schedule. The teacher observed that the quiz performance increased more than the timeliness did, so the
students were responding more strongly to the fixed-ratio schedule. Thus, choice (C) is correct.
A: While this is true, the teacher wasnt using a variable-ratio schedule.
B: Intrinsic motivation is irrelevant to this scenario " all the motivation discussed is extrinsic.
D: The teacher didnt use a variable-interval schedule.
Question: 791 Section 1
A study examined admissions to exceptionally selective colleges. When examining the correlates of admission acceptance, two
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obvious factors that strongly correlated with admissions were GPA and standardized test scores, with correlation values of +0.41 and
+0.55 respectively. However, the study also demonstrated that those students who had social networks that overlapped with the
alumni networks of the selective colleges were even more likely to be admitted, with a correlation between social network and alumni
network of +0.61. This correlation demonstrates:
A. the value of cultural capital.
B. a meritocracy.
C. the value of social capital.
D. a false association.
Answer: C
Social capital is the value a person derives from their social networks. In this case, those with a social network that overlaps with a
colleges network allows them to achieve admissions into highly selective universities. Those admissions have value and thus the
situation demonstrated the value of social capital and choice C is the correct answer.
A: Cultural capital refers to assets beyond money that can help lead to social mobility. In this case, having a high GPA thereby
gaining admissions to a college when ones parents did not go to college would be an example of cultural capital.
B: Meritocracy would mean achieving a result based solely on individual merit. The social networking effects discussed here are the
opposite.
D: We have no reason to think the positive correlation presented is false.
Question: 792 Section 1
Each of the following are aspects of the McDonaldization of Society EXCEPT:
A. Rationalization of decisions into cost/benefit analysis structures and away from traditional modes of thinking
B. Bureaucratic organization that formalizes well-establish division of labor and impersonal structures
C. A dissolution of hierarchical modes of authority into collaborative team-based decision protocols
D. An intense effort on achieving sameness across diverse markets
Answer: C
Sociologist George Ritzer coined the term McDonaldization to describe the modern form of the social phenomenon of rationalization
discussed by Max Weber at the end of the nineteenth century. The rationalization of society involves a shift in social structures
towards rational means/ends tests (like choice A) a focus on efficiency and formal methods of social control. The classic example of a
rational social structure is bureaucracy (as described in B) that aims to create a uniformity of outcomes (as described in D). The
correct answer, (C) is not a part of McDonaldization, which would focus on strongly hierarchical methods of control.
Question: 793 Section 1
The social phenomenon of groupthink is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. A significant over-rating of the decision-making abilities of members of the ingroup.
B. A decrease in the creativity of individual group members in contributing to solutions the ingroup wants to achieve.
C. High loyalty and group cohesiveness causing members to feel safe raising controversial issues and proposing alternative
solutions.
D. An effort to minimize conflict and ensure consensus.
Answer: C
Groupthink is a phenomenon that occurs when highly cohesive and loyal groups of people end up valuing consensus over clear
decision-making and confronting ingroup conflicts. This high cohesiveness leads people to avoid raising controversial issues or
propose alternatives to the groups desired solution. Thus, (C) is false and because this is an EXCEPT question, its the right answer.
The remaining choices are all apt descriptions of groupthink.
Question: 794 Section 1
Walking down a street late at night, an adult male pedestrian notices a young female on the ground, not moving. The female is on the
opposite side of the street.
Crossing the street, the pedestrian notices that the young woman appears both much wealthier than he is and is of a different ethnicity.
Seeing nobody else present, the pedestrian renders aid.
According to the bystander effect, which of the following would change how the pedestrian reacts?
A. The person requiring aid appearing to be of a lower socioeconomic class rather than a higher one
B. The presence of another group of people one block up the street
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C. The person requiring aid appearing to be the same ethnicity rather than a different one
D. The presence of one other person who is already approaching the girl
Answer: D
The bystander effect indicates that people are less likely to take action when there are other people present and it seems as though the
other people will take charge of the situation or will take direct action. Here, if another person is already heading towards the girl, the
pedestrian may assume someone else is going to render aid, and will just move on, rather than rendering aid himself. Thus (D) is the
correct answer. A, C: The bystander effect concerns itself with the presence of other people. B: While this choice indicates the
presence of other people, their distance from the situation makes it less likely that the pedestrian will assume that others are helping.
Question: 795 Section 1
A hedonic teenager of wayward morals, in one night, sequentially i) has consensual sexual intercourse with his sister, ii) leaves no tip
at the bar, iii) has non- censual sexual relations with an unknown woman, and iv) vomits on the steps to the door of a local church.
The teenager has violated societys norms sequentially (to the greatest degree) on the order of:
A. mores, mores, the law, mores
B. taboo, folkways, the law, and taboo
C. the law, folkways, folkways, and folkways
D. taboo, folkways, the law, and mores
Answer: D
A societys norms are group held beliefs of how an individual should behave in context. To a rough approximation: folkways
distinguish between right and rude, mores distinguish between right and wrong, taboos define behaviors too accursed for an ordinary
individual to undertake, and laws are systems of rules and guidelines which are enforced through social institutions to govern
behavior. In the west, two common taboos are incest, sexual intercourse between close relatives, and pederasty, a homosexual
relationship between an adult male and a pubescent or adolescent male. Laws regarding incest vary widely between jurisdictions.
Pederasty violates the law if the younger male is not of the age of consent. In the west, non-consensual sex, murder, and theft are
common violations of the law. a) " incorrect. Intercourse with a sibling violates a taboo, failing to tip violates a folkway, non-
consensual sex violates the law, and vomiting on a religious building violates a more (probably slightly more extreme than a violation
of a folkway). b) " incorrect. Although quite distasteful, vomiting on a religious building does not violate a cultural taboo. c) "
incorrect. Consensual sex with a sibling does not violate the law in all jurisdictions and is an example of violating a cultural taboo.
Non-consensual sex is a violation of the law. Vomiting on a religious building is slightly more than rude, and would most likely be
considered a violation of mores rather than folkways. d) " correct.
Question: 796 Section 1
A police officer carries out hundreds of traffic stops every year. When his supervisor is reviewing the officers records for the past
year, he notices that the officer is equally likely to stop people of various genders, ages, and races. However, he is significantly more
likely to write tickets for middle-aged white males with dark hair and eyes. When confronted with this fact, the officer truthfully
states that he has no idea why that is, and that it must simply be a coincidence. Unbeknownst to the officer, this behavior is tied to the
fact that these men look like his father, with whom he had an abusive relationship as a child. What psychological framework would
directly address the unconscious bias in his behavior?
A. Behaviorist
B. Psychoanalytic
C. Cognitive behavioral
D. Humanistic
Answer: B
Freuds psychoanalytic framework deals with the interactions between the conscious and unconscious mind. Through talk therapy, free
association, dream analysis, etc. patients are helped to see how their early childhood experiences shape their unconscious mind and
how that then affects their adult lives. Thus choice B, psychoanalytic framework, would directly address this unconscious component
of the officers behavior.
Question: 797 Section 1
A local politician starts a task force to reduce prejudice and hate crimes, and the task force provides recommendations for increased
access to education, paid community improvement projects open to people from different, possibly conflicted, groups, and stricter
anti-hate ordinances to be passed at the local level. These recommendations are based on:
I. Self-esteem hypothesis -
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II. Contact hypothesis -
III. Hypothesis -
IV. Legal hypothesis -
A. I, II, and III
B. II, III, and IV
C. I, III, and IV
D. I, II, and IV
Answer: D
Four main hypotheses are speculated to reduce prejudice. The self-esteem hypothesis states that when people have access to education
and greater self-esteem, prejudices will go away. The contact hypothesis states that when members of different groups are brought
together in order to appreciate their common experiences, prejudices will go away. Similarly, the cooperation hypothesis (not an
answer choice) suggests that when conflicting groups work together towards shared goals, prejudices will go away. Finally, the legal
hypothesis suggests that when laws are enforced against discriminatory behavior, prejudices will go away.
There is no assimilation hypothesis, assimilation refers to blending of minority groups into the dominant society. In this question, the
task-force has recommended increased access to education (I. Self-esteem hypothesis), paid community improvement projects open to
people from varied backgrounds (II. Contact hypothesis, and would include Cooperation hypothesis if this were a choice), and stricter
anti-hate ordinances (IV. Legal hypothesis). All choices are correct except for III.
Question: 798 Section 1
A young adult man begins seeing a therapist and tells the therapist that he has homosexual feelings, and that he self-identifies as gay.
He is plagued by feelings of worthlessness and fears that he will be subject to what his religion terms eternal damnation. He feels
alienated from his family and friends, as he knows of no other homosexuals in his peer group or family. In the course of working with
the man, the therapist helps him see that his feelings are exceptionally common among people who have recently discovered their
same-sex feelings, and encourages him to attend a support group for newly out gay men. The therapists approach demonstrates which
of the following phenomena?
A. Stereotype threat
B. Groupthink
C. Universalization
D. Spatial discrimination
Answer: C
Universalization is a form of supportive intervention in which the client is made to understand that others share similar feelings and
experiences. This process helps the client see that his feelings are normal, and this normalization process helps reduce distress. That is
what the therapist has done for his client in the scenario presented.
A: Stereotype threat refers to a phenomenon whereby those aware of a stereotype will alter their own behavior due to anxiety about
living up to (or down to) the stereotype. It has most sharply been demonstrated in decreased performance on cognitive tasks by
minorities, when those minorities are told in advance of the task that the task is an intelligence test.
B: Groupthink is when a groups decision making process is hampered by an excessive focus on group cohesion and conformity, to the
point of excluding any new data that might challenge the groups worldview.
D: Spatial discrimination occurs when one group is subjected to different treatment based on geography. For example, if a new toxic
waste dump is to be located in an area only occupied by disadvantaged minorities, then they are being subjected to a form of spatial
discrimination.
Question: 799 Section 1
What is the relationship between suicide rates and social change according to the sociologist Emile Durkheim?
A. A higher suicide rate leads to more social change.
B. A higher suicide rate leads to less social change.
C. Social change leads to suicide rates going up.
D. Social change leads to suicide rates going down.
Answer: C
C is correct. In association with his observational study, Durkheim developed a typology of suicide that ascribed this behavior to the
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unsettling effects of social change. That is, for him, social change caused suicide. The greater social change was; the higher suicide
rates were.
A. This is incorrect. According to Durkheim, a change in suicide rates has no effect on social change.
B. This is incorrect. According to Durkheim, suicide has no effect on social change.
D. This is incorrect. According to Durkheim, social change leads to suicide rates going up, rather than going down.
Question: 800 Section 1
Family violence, such as domestic violence, child abuse, and elder abuse, are serious and pervasive problems in the United States. On
an annual basis, the
National Crime Survey has found domestic violence results in 21000 hospitalizations, 99800 days of hospitalization, 28700
emergency department visits, and
39900 visits to physicians.
Currently there is little consensus about the definitions of intimate violence. Even the terms employed are varied; for example,
domestic violence, conjugal violence, intimate abuse, and partner abuse. Similarly, there are a range of causal explanations, and these
are contingent upon the theoretical perspective employed. There is also controversy whether the term violence, abuse, or aggression
should be used. Finally, within the terms adopted, there is no consensus about the victim-perpetrator relationship. For example, do the
terms refer to a married co-habiting couple? Two heterosexual individuals who do not reside together but are dating? All this has
implications for research, practice, and policy.
The National Violence Against Women Survey was one of the largest studies sponsored by the National Institute of Justice and the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. It systematically analyzed crime against women in the United States. A total of 8000 men
and 8000 women in the United States were interviewed on the phone using a closed-ended survey. Table 1 displays the breakdown of
figures when examining life time victimization by racial groups.
Table 1 Percentage of people victimized by an intimate partner in lifetime, by victim gender, type of victimization, and victim race
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Source: Adapted from P Tjaden and N. Thoennes, "Consequences of Intimate Partner Violence: Findings from the National Violence
Against Women Survey."
How would a scholar utilizing social control theory explain domestic violence?
A. Domestic violence is modeled and learned.
B. Domestic violence is triggered by the lack of regulations and cohesive networks in society.
C. Labelling as deviant the reactions of both the perpetuator and the victim of intimate violence reinforces such behaviors.
D. Domestic violence is caused by an interaction of factors from the micro, meso, and macro-levels causing a feedback loop
that then results in a loss of systems control.
Answer: B
B is correct. Social control theory maintains that social networks and social control mechanisms must be in place in society to
regulate its members. These connections and their control mechanisms promote pro-social behaviors and reduce anti-social
behaviors. Someone adopting this perspective would claim that lack cohesive social bonds and associated social control mechanisms
would be responsive for violence. Thus, an intensification of social bonds and associated control mechanisms would diminish aspects
such as domestic violence.
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A. This is incorrect. Social learning theory posits that all behaviors are learned through modeling. In this case, violence is learned by
observing violent acts such as on the media. This is unrelated to social control theory.
C. This is incorrect. According to labeling theory, society defines and creates deviance. Social units define (i.e., label) what is and is
not normative, and what it means to be deviant. This act provokes a reaction at different levels (individual, institutional, and
macrosocial). Under this perspective, deviance is not an intrinsic aspect of an act or person, but the result of the application of a label
by someone to someone else. Changing labels would change reactions and likely decrease the performance of such "deviant" acts.
Although labeling is an act of control, they recommend against it, unlike those in favor of social control theory.
D. This is incorrect. Systems theory examines a problem like violence as a social interaction stemming from the micro-level (i.e.,
individual level), the meso-level
(e.g., family, neighborhoods, schools, etc.) and macro-level (e.g., government, culture, institutions, etc.). This is unrelated to social
control theory.
Question: 801 Section 1
Family violence, such as domestic violence, child abuse, and elder abuse, are serious and pervasive problems in the United States. On
an annual basis, the
National Crime Survey has found domestic violence results in 21000 hospitalizations, 99800 days of hospitalization, 28700
emergency department visits, and
39900 visits to physicians.
Currently there is little consensus about the definitions of intimate violence. Even the terms employed are varied; for example,
domestic violence, conjugal violence, intimate abuse, and partner abuse. Similarly, there are a range of causal explanations, and these
are contingent upon the theoretical perspective employed. There is also controversy whether the term violence, abuse, or aggression
should be used. Finally, within the terms adopted, there is no consensus about the victim-perpetrator relationship. For example, do the
terms refer to a married co-habiting couple? Two heterosexual individuals who do not reside together but are dating? All this has
implications for research, practice, and policy.
The National Violence Against Women Survey was one of the largest studies sponsored by the National Institute of Justice and the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. It systematically analyzed crime against women in the United States. A total of 8000 men
and 8000 women in the United States were interviewed on the phone using a closed-ended survey. Table 1 displays the breakdown of
figures when examining life time victimization by racial groups.
Table 1 Percentage of people victimized by an intimate partner in lifetime, by victim gender, type of victimization, and victim race
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Source: Adapted from P Tjaden and N. Thoennes, "Consequences of Intimate Partner Violence: Findings from the National Violence
Against Women Survey."
Counselors who experience the cumulative effects of strain and exhaustion from hearing the stories of violence of victims of domestic
violence over time are suffering from a phenomenon named:
A. learned helplessness.
B. acute stress.
C. compassion fatigue.
D. post-traumatic stress syndrome.
Answer: C
C is correct. Compassion fatigue (or secondary victimization, or secondary traumatic stress disorder) refers to the emotional disruption
caused in helpers by listening repeatedly to clients narratives about horrific and traumatic events. The accumulation of secondary
distress generates a state that resembles post- traumatic stress disorder. Its symptoms include: cognitive intrusion, avoidance, negative
affect, anhedonia, anxious arousal, and dysphoric arousal. Although it was not identified as a separate disorder in Diagnostic and
Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5), research about it is ongoing and regards such experience as an
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occupational hazard with psychological and functional consequences.
A. This is incorrect. Learned helpless was a concept developed by Martin Seligman. It refers to a cognitive state whereby one views a
situation as beyond their control. It was studied with animals that were being shocked no matter what they did. After some time under
such harsh conditions they tended to stop moving, not even trying to escape the shock, as if having given up on resolving their
problem.
B. This is incorrect. Acute stress is a DSM disorder that is characterized by severe anxiety-related symptoms that occurs after a direct
exposure to a traumatic event. It is thus not the phenomenon caused by listening to traumatic stories, or "second-hand" trauma.
D. This is incorrect. Post-traumatic stress disorder is a stress disorder that is characterized by flashbacks, nightmares, and other
symptoms of anxiety. It is caused by direct rather than secondary exposure to a traumatic stimulus. It is more severe than acute stress.
Question: 802 Section 1
Family violence, such as domestic violence, child abuse, and elder abuse, are serious and pervasive problems in the United States. On
an annual basis, the
National Crime Survey has found domestic violence results in 21000 hospitalizations, 99800 days of hospitalization, 28700
emergency department visits, and
39900 visits to physicians.
Currently there is little consensus about the definitions of intimate violence. Even the terms employed are varied; for example,
domestic violence, conjugal violence, intimate abuse, and partner abuse. Similarly, there are a range of causal explanations, and these
are contingent upon the theoretical perspective employed. There is also controversy whether the term violence, abuse, or aggression
should be used. Finally, within the terms adopted, there is no consensus about the victim-perpetrator relationship. For example, do the
terms refer to a married co-habiting couple? Two heterosexual individuals who do not reside together but are dating? All this has
implications for research, practice, and policy.
The National Violence Against Women Survey was one of the largest studies sponsored by the National Institute of Justice and the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. It systematically analyzed crime against women in the United States. A total of 8000 men
and 8000 women in the United States were interviewed on the phone using a closed-ended survey. Table 1 displays the breakdown of
figures when examining life time victimization by racial groups.
Table 1 Percentage of people victimized by an intimate partner in lifetime, by victim gender, type of victimization, and victim race
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Source: Adapted from P Tjaden and N. Thoennes, "Consequences of Intimate Partner Violence: Findings from the National Violence
Against Women Survey."
When interpreting the data about lifetime prevalence rates of physical assault, as experienced by women in the four different racial
minority groups, which of the following sociological theories is least helpful at explaining found differences?
A. Attribution theory
B. Feminist theory
C. Social desirability theory
D. Conflict theory
Answer: C
C is correct. Social desirability is more adequately described as a mechanism, phenomenon, or bias " not as a social theory. It is
defined as the phenomenon whereby individuals in a research study will attempt to present themselves in a more favorable light. In
studies involving sensitive topics (e.g., racial opinions) or which are utilized for sensitive purposes (e.g., job applications), there is a
chance that respondents will distort or fake factual information so as to be more favorably perceived. Secondly, social desirability is
not commonly used to explain such differences. Moreover, presently, there is no evidence of social desirability affecting differently
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different racial groups. That is, theoretically speaking, it could affect equally every group. Thus, this is the least helpful theory at
explaining found differences.
A. This is incorrect. Attribution theory argues that individuals tend to attribute causal explanations to events. It has been observed
being applied to justify crime.
Specifically, people make different causal attributions to offenders of different races. A similar argument could be made in regards to
the cause of victimization.
B. This is incorrect. Feminist theory explores the role of patriarchy in the domination of women, and some of its proponents argue
that physical assault on women is motivated by power and control rather than sexual gratification. It could argue that, in certain races,
patriarchy was more marked than in others. As such, individuals from those races would have higher propensity for being victimized.
Some evidence further suggests that there are some inter-racial differences, such as white individuals being victims of assault in in
interracial marriages more frequently, and less frequently being perpetrators in interracial marriages.
D. This incorrect. Conflict theory posits that certain groups will have different levels of power due to differential access to resources.
The group with greater power will tend to exploit the group with less power. The table does neither provide any data about each
groups access to resources nor about which group is exploiting
(assaulting) which. Even though, theorists from the field could argue that those with less resources and power would have higher
propensity for being victimized.
In ascending order, that those with the least power would be: American Indian/Alaska Native, then Mixed Race, then African-
American, then White, and finally
Asian Pacific Islander. That is, the group with the greatest power in the U.S., where the study was performed, would be the Asian
Pacific Islander. In broad strokes, for Asian, White, and African-American races, this would be consistent with reports from the
Census depicting medium household income in 2004 but not necessarily with other metrics.
Question: 803 Section 1
Family violence, such as domestic violence, child abuse, and elder abuse, are serious and pervasive problems in the United States. On
an annual basis, the
National Crime Survey has found domestic violence results in 21000 hospitalizations, 99800 days of hospitalization, 28700
emergency department visits, and
39900 visits to physicians.
Currently there is little consensus about the definitions of intimate violence. Even the terms employed are varied; for example,
domestic violence, conjugal violence, intimate abuse, and partner abuse. Similarly, there are a range of causal explanations, and these
are contingent upon the theoretical perspective employed. There is also controversy whether the term violence, abuse, or aggression
should be used. Finally, within the terms adopted, there is no consensus about the victim-perpetrator relationship. For example, do the
terms refer to a married co-habiting couple? Two heterosexual individuals who do not reside together but are dating? All this has
implications for research, practice, and policy.
The National Violence Against Women Survey was one of the largest studies sponsored by the National Institute of Justice and the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. It systematically analyzed crime against women in the United States. A total of 8000 men
and 8000 women in the United States were interviewed on the phone using a closed-ended survey. Table 1 displays the breakdown of
figures when examining life time victimization by racial groups.
Table 1 Percentage of people victimized by an intimate partner in lifetime, by victim gender, type of victimization, and victim race
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Source: Adapted from P Tjaden and N. Thoennes, "Consequences of Intimate Partner Violence: Findings from the National Violence
Against Women Survey."
Which of the following methodological procedures would NOT help to assure that the findings in Table 1 allow drawing valid and
reliable conclusions about differences in victimization incidence across race groups?
A. Verify whether the population in the US shows or does not show the same proportion of races as that found for the study
illustrated in Table 1.
B. Create equal sample sizes and test whether group differences are significant, like through ANOVA.
C. Verify whether the samples per condition are or are not fairly equivalent in term of demographic characteristics, such as age,
place of residence, and employment status.
D. Verify whether race groups are or are not strongly and significantly correlated to the number of victimization incidents.
Answer: D
D is correct. Correlations are association tests that can be applied only when there are at least ordinal variables under study. The study
illustrated in Table 1 includes one at least ordinal variable: amount of victimization incidents. This is a quantitative variable.
However, race groups are a nominal variable. Thus, correlations could not be applied to help to assure that valid and reliable
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conclusions about race group differences in victimization incidence can be drawn.
A. This is incorrect. Verifying whether the population in the US shows or does not show the same proportion of races as that found
for the study illustrated in Table
1 would help to understand whether the race groups are representative of the population. Representativeness is critical for drawing
valid conclusions about differences in victimization incidence; it helps to understand whether findings can be generalized to the
overall population.
B. This is incorrect. The race-group sample sizes in the study illustrated in Table 1 are fairly dissimilar. Tests such as ANOVA, that
test whether group differences are significant, require the fulfilment of a series of conditions, one of which being the similarity of
sample sizes per condition. Thus, if groups of equal sizes were formed from the study data, researchers could test statistically whether
differences in incidence of victimization across race groups were or not significant.
C. This is incorrect. Verifying whether the samples per condition are or not fairly equivalent in term of demographic characteristics,
such as age, place of residence, and employment status, would provide an idea of whether the groups are matched. Matched samples
are those which are fairly similar in terms of demographic traits. This procedure helps to minimize the odds of the presence of
confounding variables, and as such contributes to the validity of conclusions.
Question: 804 Section 1
Family violence, such as domestic violence, child abuse, and elder abuse, are serious and pervasive problems in the United States. On
an annual basis, the
National Crime Survey has found domestic violence results in 21000 hospitalizations, 99800 days of hospitalization, 28700
emergency department visits, and
39900 visits to physicians.
Currently there is little consensus about the definitions of intimate violence. Even the terms employed are varied; for example,
domestic violence, conjugal violence, intimate abuse, and partner abuse. Similarly, there are a range of causal explanations, and these
are contingent upon the theoretical perspective employed. There is also controversy whether the term violence, abuse, or aggression
should be used. Finally, within the terms adopted, there is no consensus about the victim-perpetrator relationship. For example, do the
terms refer to a married co-habiting couple? Two heterosexual individuals who do not reside together but are dating? All this has
implications for research, practice, and policy.
The National Violence Against Women Survey was one of the largest studies sponsored by the National Institute of Justice and the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. It systematically analyzed crime against women in the United States. A total of 8000 men
and 8000 women in the United States were interviewed on the phone using a closed-ended survey. Table 1 displays the breakdown of
figures when examining life time victimization by racial groups.
Table 1 Percentage of people victimized by an intimate partner in lifetime, by victim gender, type of victimization, and victim race
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Source: Adapted from P Tjaden and N. Thoennes, "Consequences of Intimate Partner Violence: Findings from the National Violence
Against Women Survey."
A feminist researcher would most likely want to test out which one of the following hypotheses in a study about domestic violence?
A. Individuals who subscribe to patriarchal assumptions about mens role in society and male domination will more likely justify
the use of violence against women.
B. Those who are more egalitarian in their gender role assignments are more likely to endorse and perpetrate physical
aggression against their female partners.
C. Higher residential mobility, lower educational levels, and high stress levels will statistically significantly predict mens life
time prevalence rates of perpetration of abuse.
D. The frustration aggression hypothesis
Answer: A
A is correct. Feminist theory posits that patriarchy, which consists of a system of societal organization that is led by fathers or elder
males of the community, and male domination are reinforced and perpetuated by societys institutions. Violence against women is seen
as one way of exercising male domination, and perpetuating gender differences in the institution of marriage, family, and so forth.
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B. This is incorrect. Those who espouse egalitarian gender role attitudes believe that the roles of men and women should be equal or
fairly distributed. They will unlikely justify abuse on the behalf of men toward women, and much less as based on stereotypes and
schemas about genders and their roles in society.
Moreover, egalitarian gender role attitudes are not the opposite of patriarchy. Hence, their study would not target that which is at the
core of feminist interests: the impact of patriarchy on society, and how to minimize it.
C. This is incorrect. Residential mobility, educational levels, and stress have not been found to be predictors of abuse. Furthermore,
unless these are connected to social male domination in some way, they are also not the factors targeted by feminists.
D. This is incorrect. The frustration aggression hypothesis has been put forth to explain aggression. It argues that individuals who are
frustrated will be more aggressive than those who are not. This is unrelated to feminist views on the issue.
Question: 805 Section 1
A symbolic interactionism researcher who is observing two people enjoying a coffee together at a cafe would primarily point out that:
A. the drinking ritual is symbolic and more important than the drink itself.
B. coffee is a stimulant drug.
C. coffee is the second most valuable commodity in international trade.
D. coffee is a branded and politicized consumption good.
Answer: A
A is correct. Symbolic interactionists observe how people relate to things on their daily life based on the meanings those things have
for them. These meanings or symbols are created mainly through social interaction and language, and shape subsequent behavior. For
instance, people can agree to meet to have a coffee but are not obliged to actually consume the drink. This is because the idea of
meeting for a coffee is merely symbolic, standing for a short period of togetherness and socialization. Thus, they will not feel they are
going against the initial plan if they have a tea instead. They will still enjoy the shared meaning of comfort and spending time with
friends that stems from the idea of having a coffee. Thus, knowing the meaning of actions, words, and images for people is critical
for understanding peoples behavior and interaction.
B. This is incorrect. The claim that coffee is a stimulant drug is true but a social interactionist perspective would not be interested in
that issue. Rather, it would search for the underlying meaning of having a coffee or why it acceptable to consume a particular type of
stimulant drugs in certain settings and under certain circumstances.
C. This is incorrect. A Marxist perspective might pay attention to the nature of coffee as a commodity and how the global supply
chain affects workers and economies worldwide. This is not of primary concern for social interactionism theory.
D. This is incorrect. This would be of interest to theories about consumption and lifestyle. This is not of primary concern for social
interactionism theory.
Question: 806 Section 1
In the United States, breast cancer is the second leading cause of death for women, and as a result, the American Cancer Society, has
recommended annual mammography screening for women age 40 years and older. It is estimated that the risk of mortality can be
reduced through this procedure by approximately 20-
25% during a ten-year period for women age 40 years and older.
In general, cancer screening behaviors have increased in the United States. According to the National Health Interview Survey, in
1987, approximately 29% of women age 40 years and older reported having had a mammogram in the last 2 years. By 2000, this
increased to 70%. However, there are racial disparities, as fewer African American and Hispanic women have mammograms
compared to their Caucasian female counterparts. Some studies have looked into these differences. Cultural factors seem to play a
role in minority women obtaining fewer mammograms. Asian women, for example, do not like to discuss sensitive topics with
strangers.
Prevention promotions have been designed to increase awareness for the need of breast cancer screening, particularly for women in
racial and ethnic minority groups. An innovative breast cancer education program, called the Educational Intervention Asian Grocery
Store-Based Education Program, was designed to target Asian women. Located in 20 different Asian grocery stores in communities,
the cancer screening exhibits were placed at the entrances of the stores. As
Asian women came into the grocery store, health information was passed out to Asian women. Even though only a small amount of
women who were considered non-adherents to breast cancer screening ended up scheduling a screening, the study demonstrated an
innovative culturally competent approach to health promotion.
Source: Adapted from G.R. Sadler, P.R. Beerman, K. Lee et al. Promoting Breast Cancer Screening Among Asian American Women:
The Asian Grocery Store
Based Cancer Education Program. Copyright 2012 Journal of Cancer Education.
After learning about the foot-in-the-door technique, what might a health promoter do so to promote Asian women to sign up for a
mammogram appointment?
A. Give them a 15-minute lecture on the importance of early prevention.
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B. Promote the cultural concept of loss of face by informing them that the sponsors of the Educational Intervention Asian
Grocery Store-Based Education Program put in a lot of money into the program and will lose face if progress is not made.
C. Encourage them to take a free shopping bag that includes a box of tea bags and a brochure about mammograms.
D. Tell them that many other Asian women have signed up right on the spot.
Answer: C
C is correct. The foot-in-the-door technique is a persuasion strategy where the communicator starts off asking the individual to do
something very small. Once the individual agrees, the premise is that the individual will more likely agree with a second request that
is larger. In this case, the person was asked a very small request: to accept the bag, the tea offer, and the brochure. The idea is that
this would 'open doors' toward the idea of making a mammography, which would stand for the last step of the strategy that involves a
large request.
A. This is incorrect. Giving them a lecture could amount to a request (listening). Yet, the pressure toward mammography is great
during a persuading lecture on the topic. The foot-in-the-door technique usually promotes the idea via small approximating steps. It
does not address the issue full on. Secondly, it most likely would not be beneficial. The health promoter needs to first establish
credibility and trust.
B. This is incorrect. Face is a concept whereby an individuals worth is tied to his/her social network. Face is lost when ones
performance fails to live up to the standards set up by the social network. Ultimately, loss of face leads to feelings of shame. The foot-
in-the-door technique usually promotes the idea via small approximating steps. Here too, the mammography request is addressed full-
on, rather than via small approximating steps, as with the foot-in-the-door technique.
D. This is incorrect. Telling them that other Asian women have signed might cause some feelings of peer pressure, but is unlikely to
be effective because the health promoter has not established any credibility. Moreover, the mammography request is addressed full-
on, rather than via small approximating steps, as with the foot-in-the-door technique.
Question: 807 Section 1
In the United States, breast cancer is the second leading cause of death for women, and as a result, the American Cancer Society, has
recommended annual mammography screening for women age 40 years and older. It is estimated that the risk of mortality can be
reduced through this procedure by approximately 20-
25% during a ten-year period for women age 40 years and older.
In general, cancer screening behaviors have increased in the United States. According to the National Health Interview Survey, in
1987, approximately 29% of women age 40 years and older reported having had a mammogram in the last 2 years. By 2000, this
increased to 70%. However, there are racial disparities, as fewer African American and Hispanic women have mammograms
compared to their Caucasian female counterparts. Some studies have looked into these differences. Cultural factors seem to play a
role in minority women obtaining fewer mammograms. Asian women, for example, do not like to discuss sensitive topics with
strangers.
Prevention promotions have been designed to increase awareness for the need of breast cancer screening, particularly for women in
racial and ethnic minority groups. An innovative breast cancer education program, called the Educational Intervention Asian Grocery
Store-Based Education Program, was designed to target Asian women. Located in 20 different Asian grocery stores in communities,
the cancer screening exhibits were placed at the entrances of the stores. As
Asian women came into the grocery store, health information was passed out to Asian women. Even though only a small amount of
women who were considered non-adherents to breast cancer screening ended up scheduling a screening, the study demonstrated an
innovative culturally competent approach to health promotion.
Source: Adapted from G.R. Sadler, P.R. Beerman, K. Lee et al. Promoting Breast Cancer Screening Among Asian American Women:
The Asian Grocery Store
Based Cancer Education Program. Copyright 2012 Journal of Cancer Education.
If the goal of the health communication is to influence individuals, families, neighborhoods, medical and social service organizations,
and ultimately public health policy, health promoters are adhering to:
A. Urie Bronfenbrenners ecological systems theory.
B. Murray Bowens family systems theory.
C. John Bowlbys attachment theory.
D. Milton Gordons assimilation theory.
Answer: A
A is correct. Ecological systems theory was first applied to understand child development and their socialization. It maintains that
human behavior (in this case, health behavior) is influenced by multiple levels or spheres of influence of different orders, including
the microsystem, which is related to the individual (e.g., the patients beliefs, personality, past experiences, etc.); the mesosystem,
which is related to those with whom the person relates to directly (e.g., the family, community, neighborhood, workplace, school,
friends, etc.); the exosystem, which relates to institutions and organizations which regulate that persons community and with which
the person does not often interact directly (e.g., health services, social services, legal institutions, industry, mass media, etc.); the
macrosystem, which relates to that persons cultural milieu (e.g., culture, traditions, laws, etc.); and the chronosystem, which relates to
MCAT-ADDITIONAL.html[8/4/2021 4:46:58 AM]
the dimension of time (e.g., when the person was born, when they lost their parents, etc.). The latter system was introduced a later
stage of his career.
B. This is incorrect. Family systems theory argues that individual behaviors must be understood within the family system they come
about. That is, one cannot understand individuals outside their family unit. It does not identify a wider frame of influence, as
ecological system theory does.
C. This is incorrect. Attachment theory emphasizes that behavior stem from the emotional attachments developed between infant and
parents/caregivers. There are several types of attachment, characterized by the different sets of behaviors and experiences, and that
influence relationship patterns established during adulthood. This theory is not concerned with the spheres of social influence upon the
individual, as ecological system theory is.
D. This is incorrect. Assimilation theory is used in sociology to understand how immigrants adopt the cultural norms of the new host
country. It is not concerned with the spheres of social influence upon the individual, as ecological system theory is.
Question: 808 Section 1
In the United States, breast cancer is the second leading cause of death for women, and as a result, the American Cancer Society, has
recommended annual mammography screening for women age 40 years and older. It is estimated that the risk of mortality can be
reduced through this procedure by approximately 20-
25% during a ten-year period for women age 40 years and older.
In general, cancer screening behaviors have increased in the United States. According to the National Health Interview Survey, in
1987, approximately 29% of women age 40 years and older reported having had a mammogram in the last 2 years. By 2000, this
increased to 70%. However, there are racial disparities, as fewer African American and Hispanic women have mammograms
compared to their Caucasian female counterparts. Some studies have looked into these differences. Cultural factors seem to play a
role in minority women obtaining fewer mammograms. Asian women, for example, do not like to discuss sensitive topics with
strangers.
Prevention promotions have been designed to increase awareness for the need of breast cancer screening, particularly for women in
racial and ethnic minority groups. An innovative breast cancer education program, called the Educational Intervention Asian Grocery
Store-Based Education Program, was designed to target Asian women. Located in 20 different Asian grocery stores in communities,
the cancer screening exhibits were placed at the entrances of the stores. As
Asian women came into the grocery store, health information was passed out to Asian women. Even though only a small amount of
women who were considered non-adherents to breast cancer screening ended up scheduling a screening, the study demonstrated an
innovative culturally competent approach to health promotion.
Source: Adapted from G.R. Sadler, P.R. Beerman, K. Lee et al. Promoting Breast Cancer Screening Among Asian American Women:
The Asian Grocery Store
Based Cancer Education Program. Copyright 2012 Journal of Cancer Education.
How must promoters of health behaviors communicate with a high-context culture like the Asian?
A. Communicate directly with participants, using informal language mostly, and with little emphasis on nonverbal cues
B. Assume what is being said is what is actually meant
C. Get to the point of the discussion as quickly as possible
D. Employ formal language, rely on nonverbal cues, and be comfortable with silences
Answer: D
D is correct. High-context cultures are those that have communication styles that rely on shared experiences, implicit messages,
relational aspects, and nonverbal cues. That is, people from high context cultures tend to listen by focusing on the tone and how
something was communicated, say more with fewer words, and intentionally make use of silence. Much is understood from manner,
status, physical context, relationship, and/or shared background without use of words. They will also often take time to think things
through before making a response. Conversely, lower-context cultures (e.g., America) are less comfortable with long pauses, use
words to fill up silences, and communicate everything explicitly.
A. This is incorrect. Explicit communication with little reliance on nonverbal cues is the main attribute in low-context cultures.
B. This is incorrect. Assume what is being said is what is actually meant is characteristic of low-context cultures.
C. This is incorrect. Those in low-context cultures want to get to the point quickly so as to meet an objective.
Question: 809 Section 1
In the United States, breast cancer is the second leading cause of death for women, and as a result, the American Cancer Society, has
recommended annual mammography screening for women age 40 years and older. It is estimated that the risk of mortality can be
reduced through this procedure by approximately 20-
25% during a ten-year period for women age 40 years and older.
In general, cancer screening behaviors have increased in the United States. According to the National Health Interview Survey, in
1987, approximately 29% of women age 40 years and older reported having had a mammogram in the last 2 years. By 2000, this
increased to 70%. However, there are racial disparities, as fewer African American and Hispanic women have mammograms
MCAT-ADDITIONAL.html[8/4/2021 4:46:58 AM]
compared to their Caucasian female counterparts. Some studies have looked into these differences. Cultural factors seem to play a
role in minority women obtaining fewer mammograms. Asian women, for example, do not like to discuss sensitive topics with
strangers.
Prevention promotions have been designed to increase awareness for the need of breast cancer screening, particularly for women in
racial and ethnic minority groups. An innovative breast cancer education program, called the Educational Intervention Asian Grocery
Store-Based Education Program, was designed to target Asian women. Located in 20 different Asian grocery stores in communities,
the cancer screening exhibits were placed at the entrances of the stores. As
Asian women came into the grocery store, health information was passed out to Asian women. Even though only a small amount of
women who were considered non-adherents to breast cancer screening ended up scheduling a screening, the study demonstrated an
innovative culturally competent approach to health promotion.
Source: Adapted from G.R. Sadler, P.R. Beerman, K. Lee et al. Promoting Breast Cancer Screening Among Asian American Women:
The Asian Grocery Store
Based Cancer Education Program. Copyright 2012 Journal of Cancer Education.
What technique was being used by researchers from the Asian grocery store program if they tried to recruit more participants by
asking for referrals to those who had previously agreed?
A. Random digit dialing
B. Snowball sampling
C. Purposive sampling
D. Simple random sampling
Answer: B
B is correct. Snowball sampling is a non-probabilistic sampling technique that involves asking research subjects to refer or
recommend people from their social network who might be interested in participating. The idea is that over time, the snowball gets
larger. A major limitation of this type of sampling strategy is the amount of sampling bias introduced into the study. Specifically,
study participants may lack diversity
A. This is incorrect. Random digit dialing is a probabilistic sampling strategy that randomly selects phone numbers within area codes
to recruit participants.
C. This is incorrect. Purposive sampling is a non-probabilistic sampling strategy that looks for certain characteristics and only selects
those who fulfil selection criteria.
D. This is incorrect. Simple random sampling is a probabilistic sampling technique that will typically use a number generator to select
subjects for a study.
Question: 810 Section 1
In the United States, breast cancer is the second leading cause of death for women, and as a result, the American Cancer Society, has
recommended annual mammography screening for women age 40 years and older. It is estimated that the risk of mortality can be
reduced through this procedure by approximately 20-
25% during a ten-year period for women age 40 years and older.
In general, cancer screening behaviors have increased in the United States. According to the National Health Interview Survey, in
1987, approximately 29% of women age 40 years and older reported having had a mammogram in the last 2 years. By 2000, this
increased to 70%. However, there are racial disparities, as fewer African American and Hispanic women have mammograms
compared to their Caucasian female counterparts. Some studies have looked into these differences. Cultural factors seem to play a
role in minority women obtaining fewer mammograms. Asian women, for example, do not like to discuss sensitive topics with
strangers.
Prevention promotions have been designed to increase awareness for the need of breast cancer screening, particularly for women in
racial and ethnic minority groups. An innovative breast cancer education program, called the Educational Intervention Asian Grocery
Store-Based Education Program, was designed to target Asian women. Located in 20 different Asian grocery stores in communities,
the cancer screening exhibits were placed at the entrances of the stores. As
Asian women came into the grocery store, health information was passed out to Asian women. Even though only a small amount of
women who were considered non-adherents to breast cancer screening ended up scheduling a screening, the study demonstrated an
innovative culturally competent approach to health promotion.
Source: Adapted from G.R. Sadler, P.R. Beerman, K. Lee et al. Promoting Breast Cancer Screening Among Asian American Women:
The Asian Grocery Store
Based Cancer Education Program. Copyright 2012 Journal of Cancer Education.
How would diffusion of innovations theory attempt to explain why African American women get fewer mammograms compared with
their Caucasian female counterparts?
A. African Americans tend to feel stigmatized when they seek medical treatment.
B. It is possible that African American females experience multiple role conflicts and therefore, they are more likely to relegate
their personal needs to the needs of their family.
MCAT-ADDITIONAL.html[8/4/2021 4:46:58 AM]
C. It is possible that there is pervasive distrust of medical personnel in African-American communities.
D. Religiosity is a vital ingredient in the fabric of African American lives, and therefore, they will initially opt to see faith
healers for their health.
Answer: C
C is correct. Everett Rogers (1962) cultural diffusion of innovations model describes how the diffusion of new ideas can spread
directly or indirectly across society.
He posited that communities which were more conservative and unwilling to adopt new technology would be slow to accept
innovative ideas. Distrust of medical personnel would be a driver for that unwillingness to change.
A. This is incorrect. A stigma is a socially discrediting attribute, behavior, or reputation that is assigned to an individual due to that
persons belongingness to a particular social group. It usually involves social exclusion or rejection. This does not pertain to diffusion
of innovations theory.
B. This is incorrect. Gender role conflict occurs when people have multiple but incompatible roles associated with their gender. This
does not pertain to diffusion of innovations theory.
D. This is incorrect. According to Georg Simmel, religiosity is an inner disposition toward the sacred " faith, for example " while
religion is the objective, organizational form that religiosity assumes in a social world (e.g., churches). This does not pertain to
diffusion of innovations theory.
Question: 811 Section 1
In the United States, breast cancer is the second leading cause of death for women, and as a result, the American Cancer Society, has
recommended annual mammography screening for women age 40 years and older. It is estimated that the risk of mortality can be
reduced through this procedure by approximately 20-
25% during a ten-year period for women age 40 years and older.
In general, cancer screening behaviors have increased in the United States. According to the National Health Interview Survey, in
1987, approximately 29% of women age 40 years and older reported having had a mammogram in the last 2 years. By 2000, this
increased to 70%. However, there are racial disparities, as fewer African American and Hispanic women have mammograms
compared to their Caucasian female counterparts. Some studies have looked into these differences. Cultural factors seem to play a
role in minority women obtaining fewer mammograms. Asian women, for example, do not like to discuss sensitive topics with
strangers.
Prevention promotions have been designed to increase awareness for the need of breast cancer screening, particularly for women in
racial and ethnic minority groups. An innovative breast cancer education program, called the Educational Intervention Asian Grocery
Store-Based Education Program, was designed to target Asian women. Located in 20 different Asian grocery stores in communities,
the cancer screening exhibits were placed at the entrances of the stores. As
Asian women came into the grocery store, health information was passed out to Asian women. Even though only a small amount of
women who were considered non-adherents to breast cancer screening ended up scheduling a screening, the study demonstrated an
innovative culturally competent approach to health promotion.
Source: Adapted from G.R. Sadler, P.R. Beerman, K. Lee et al. Promoting Breast Cancer Screening Among Asian American Women:
The Asian Grocery Store
Based Cancer Education Program. Copyright 2012 Journal of Cancer Education.
If researchers from the Asian grocery store program offered a $5 coupon for groceries to women if they stopped by the exhibit booth,
which persuasion strategy is being utilized?
A. Social exchange technique
B. Physical attractiveness manipulation technique
C. Fear then relief technique
D. Lowball technique
Answer: A
A is correct. The concept of social exchanges as a persuasion tactic assumes that if a person is given a physical or psychological
reward, then they will be more likely agree to the request in the future.
B. This is incorrect. Physical attractiveness is a factor that promotes compliance. However, a $5 coupon is given to participants, and
thus is unrelated to physical attractiveness.
C. This is incorrect. The fear-then-relief strategy is a method where feelings of anxiety or apprehension are aroused and then the
threat is quickly eliminated by replacing it with a small request. An offer of a $5 coupon is very unlikely to raise anxiety.
D. This is incorrect. Lowball is a persuasion technique where the individual is offered an item at an attractively low price, and once
the person has agreed, the price is increased. This was not what happened.
MCAT-ADDITIONAL.html[8/4/2021 4:46:58 AM]
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Admission and merit scholarship consideration for students who apply as test-optional is based on several factors, including high school GPA, grades in coursework required for university admission, and rigor/performance in advanced courses (AP, IB, Honors, etc.).
Consideration for students applying with a test score includes all the above plus their highest composite ACT or SAT score.
Learn more about our test-optional policy:
Can I switch my testing plan after submitting my Common Application?
Students who submit standardized test results to Boston College and indicate on their applications that they wish to have scores considered will be unable to switch their application to test-optional at a later point in time. Once scores become part of a student's file, they cannot be removed.
Students who apply as test-optional candidates and later wish to have the Admission Committee consider their standardized test results may request to do so in writing at bcapplicant@bc.edu. For full consideration, students should contact us directly as close to our deadlines as possible.
Does this policy apply to international students?
Yes. International students are still required to demonstrate English language proficiency via TOEFL, IELTS, or Duoligo English Test results. This English language proficiency requirement may be waived for students who speak English as their native language, have attended a US high school for at least three years in a non-ESOL curriculum, or submit standardized test results including scores of 650 or greater on the SAT EBRW or 29 or greater on the ACT English section. Learn more here.
Does this policy apply to home-schooled students?
Yes. However, because the Admission Committee has little context in which to evaluate home-schooled studentsâ academic results, standardized test results are extremely helpful to the Admission Committee. Home-schooled applicants are strongly encouraged to submit standardized test scores that allow us to put their applications in context with others in our pool. Other quantitative measures that students may also benefit from submitting include AP exam scores and/or college coursework. Official college transcripts should be submitted for all college courses completed.
Does this policy apply to athletic recruits?
Yes. The NCAA has removed the test score requirement for athletic eligibility in Division I sports. Recruited athletes are responsible for ensuring their NCAA eligibility.
What entrance exams do you need to take to get into college? Most colleges or universities, including Saint Louis University, accept the SAT or ACT. Many, SLU included, are now test optional.Â
If you choose to take a college admission tests the score it can increase your eligibility for merit scholarships. Here are our answers to the most common questions about college entrance exams.
Should I Take the SAT or ACT?
While many universities will accept scores from either the SAT or ACT, some will only consider one, so start off by checking the admission requirements of the colleges that interest you. If, like at SLU, scores from both college admission exams are accepted, learn a little bit more about each test to see which is best suited to you.Â
Can't decide? It is becoming more common to take both the SAT and the ACT, but it is certainly not required. Consider your ability to prepare for tests while balancing your school work and other activities. It may go without saying, but you'll do best on a test you are ready to take.
Where and When Should I Take the SAT or ACT?
College admission exams are usually given early in the morning, so you might want to choose a testing site close to home so you are able to get as much sleep as possible the night before. If your high school offers college admission exam testing, consider taking your SAT or ACT there; you already know how to get there and are familiar with the building, which can take some stress out of test day.
Hint: Your local college or university might also be a test site â SLU is. And as a bonus, taking the test on campus gives you another chance to see what college life is like outside of a campus tour. Find out where you can take the ACT and where you can take the SAT.
When:
College admission exams are typically offered every few months. In order to be considered for scholarships at many colleges and universities, you'll need to apply for admission (and include your SAT or ACT test score) by Dec. 1 of your senior year.
Give yourself enough time to prepare for the test, but don't wait until the last minute in case you want to take the SAT or ACT a second time to try getting a better score. Check out the test requirements of the colleges or universities you're thinking about attending or learn about SLU's application deadlines and admission requirements.
How Should I Prepare for the ACT or SAT?
There are lots of tools to help you with ACT and SAT preparation. Check to see if your high school offers a college admission exam prep course, or talk to your parents about investing in a review course or a tutor. It might also be helpful to take practice tests like the PSAT or PACT first to see which exam suits you best or in which areas of the test you need improvement.
No matter how you decide to prepare, make sure to understand the different parts of the exams and skills they test. Both the ACT and SAT websites offer sample questions.
Are There Any Other Tests I Need to Get into College?
There might be a few extra steps for you if you currently attend high school in a country other than the U.S. Learn about SLU's admission requirements for international students.
Keep Exploring Be A Billiken
Nearly 25% of American Bar Association-accredited law schools have been granted a variance from Standard 503 to use JD-Next as an admission test, which can be used in lieu of the Law School Admissions Test and the Graduate Record Exam.
In June, the Council of the American Bar Association Section of Legal Education and Admissions opened the door to allow schools to use the JD-Next exam, and in September granted variances to 32 law schools, plus the University of Arizona James E. Rogers College of Law.
Choosing Test-Optional at SCU
Santa Clara University is extending its âtest-optionalâ policy for first-year and transfer students until 2024. Scores on the SAT or ACT are not required for students applying to Santa Clara University for the 2024 term. As a test-optional university, students still have the option to submit any standardized test score results theyâve received. A student who chooses not to submit standardized test scores will be at no disadvantage in our admission or merit scholarship review processes.
For the 2023 application cycle:
- 36% of SCU applicants submitted a test
- 41% of admitted students submitted a test
Where does an applicant select having ACT/SAT scores reviewed or not?
On the Common Application Supplement Questions for SCU, the following question will be required of all first-year applicants: Do you want your test scores considered?
Are other test scores like SAT II Subject Tests, AP exam scores, IB exam scores, A-levels exam scores, etc. required in the admission review process?
Santa Clara does not require submission of these scores for admission application evaluation. If students would like to report scores, they have the option to share scores through their Common Application.
How do we evaluate applications?
At Santa Clara University, we review applications holistically, meaning that we will review your application individually, taking into account your academic credentials as well as your personal qualities. Important required pieces of your application include your transcript, course rigor, unweighted GPA, extracurricular activities, Common App essay, supplemental questions, and demonstrated interest. Test scores are treated as optional information, similar to a resume or an additional letter of recommendation.
What if Iâm applying for Fall 2025 or later?
Santa Clara University is still reviewing the test-optional policy for future years.
Can an applicant who is deferred or waitlisted change their testing choice?
An applicant with a deferred or Wait List decision will have the opportunity to submit supplemental information, including test scores, an updated transcript, letter of interest, or additional letters of recommendations. It will not be required or expected to submit test scores.
What should I know as an international student?
You still have the test-optional choice. All international applicants are required to demonstrate a minimum level of English language. You can view our Undergraduate English Proficiency website to see the several ways to demonstrate English proficiency in the application for admission, which include proficiency exams like IELTS, TOEFL, Duolingo or standardized tests like SAT or ACT.
Does Santa Clara Superscore?
Yes. Students who choose to submit their test scores have the option to submit multiple scores. SCU is interested in your best achievement, so sending us multiple tests, if available, allows us to see subsections regardless of test date or test type (ACT/SAT).
How does this affect merit scholarships and institutional financial aid awards?
It doesnât! All students are reviewed for merit scholarships, whether they applied with or without a test score. About the top 15% of our applicants receive merit scholarships on the basis of a holistic review process. A student who chooses not to submit standardized test scores will be at no disadvantage in our merit scholarship review processes. Itâs up to you.
Testing Deadlines
Students who choose to have their scores considered must take the exam by the appropriate application deadline:
| Â | Early Action & Early Decision I | Regular Decision & Early Decision II |
| Common Application & Supplement Deadline | November 1 | January 7 |
| Last Accepted SAT Test Date | October | December |
| Last Accepted ACT Test Date | September* | December |
 *We cannot ensure October ACT test results will reach our office in time for Early Action and Early Decision I review.
Reporting Test Scores
We accept the following options to complete the test scores requirement by the application deadline:
- Self-report your scores in the Self-Reported Test Score form in the Application Status Portal
- Send your official test scores from the testing agency
If you receive updated test results after submitting the Self-Reported Test Scores form, you can self-report these newer scores by filling out the form again.
Enrolling at SCU
If you are offered admission to Santa Clara University and choose to enroll, official test scores that match your self-reported scores will need to be received by your deposit deadline. In order for test scores to be considered official, they must be sent directly from College Board or ACT. Santa Clara University reserves the right to revoke admission if an applicantâs self-reported scores do not match their official score report.
For enrolling students who did not select to have test scores considered in the admission review process, SCU will ask for official scores after matriculation if scores are available. The scores will be used for assessment of the test optional program.
According to data from the Graduate Management Admission Council (GMAC), taking a graduate admissions exam is one of biggest concerns for prospective MBA students.Â
In partnership with GMAC, we are offering a GMAT Test Prep Quiz to take some of the mystery out of taking the exam.Â
Having helped so many previous students manage the admissions process, we know it can seem like a daunting task. But graduate admissions exams are just like any other test in life â the more you prepare, the better you perform.
Summary
W&M extends test-optional admission process indefinitely
Full Description
Following a highly effective three-year pilot program, William & Mary will continue its standardized test-optional undergraduate admission process indefinitely. The test-optional approach allows prospective students to decide whether they wish to include SAT or ACT test results as part of their application. William & Maryâs holistic admission review process involves many components, including several optional elements, such as standardized test scores, teacher recommendations and interviews.
For more information about applying test-optional, please visit our Test-Optional FAQ page.
Calvin will no longer require students to submit standardized test scores when applying for undergraduate admission.
We know that you are more than your test scores. Our experience at Calvin, as backed up by extensive research, has shown that academic achievement in the classroom is a stronger indicator of student success. With our test-optional approach, we hope students who view standardized tests as a barrier to collegeâor those who have not been able to take standardized tests during the pandemicâwill have increased access to a Calvin education.
What does it mean to apply as test optional?
Simply put, test optional means that students do not need to provide standardized test scores in order to be considered for admission to Calvin University. Students may choose not to include their SAT, ACT, or CLT test score(s) when they apply for admission. Their application file will still be reviewed for an admissions decision.
How do I apply as test optional?
A new test optional question is included on both the Common Application and the Calvin Application. Simply check âYesâ or âNo.â
How will Calvin review my application without test scores?
Calvin has always used a holistic review process when reviewing applications for admission. Our admissions team will consider your academic achievement, unique talents, leadership and service activities, and any other information you choose to submit in your application. We look for students who demonstrate they want to be involved in a welcoming diverse campus community and who value faith, discovery, and community.
Will applying as test optional affect my eligibility for scholarships?
You are eligible to receive the same academic scholarships whether you apply as test optional or submit your test scores (SAT, ACT, or CLT).
If you choose not to submit test scores when you apply for admission, your GPA will be used to calculate any academic scholarship for which you qualify. You will be notified of an academic scholarship in your admission letter.
If you decide to submit your test scores laterâeven if you applied as test optionalâCalvin will review new scores until March 1 and notify you by email of any increase to your academic scholarship. New test scores will not reduce your previously awarded academic scholarship, so there is no disadvantage to submitting test scores.
Certain named (donor) scholarships require a test score in order to qualify. Many named (donor) scholarships do not require a test score.
There are also some outside agencies that require test scores. For example, to automatically qualify for the Federal TEACH Grant, you may want to submit your test score(s). However, this can be done at a later date.
Who can apply as test optional?
- Domestic first-year applicants who are applying to Calvin for the first time and who have never formally matriculated at another college or university are eligible to apply as test optional.
- International first-year applicants whose first language is English are eligible to take advantage of the test-optional policy. However, if English is not your first language or you are attending a school where English is not the primary language of instruction, you will be required to submit the results of your Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL), the International English Language Test System (IELTS), or Duolingo as evidence of English proficiency.
If you take the SAT and earn a score of 500 or higher on the Evidence-Based Reading and Writing section (EBRW), your English proficiency admission requirement will be waived.
Should I apply as test optional?
If you feel that your test scores are an accurate portrayal of your academic ability, feel free to include your test scores in your application. If you feel that your academic ability is better demonstrated by your high school transcripts than with your test scores, you should consider applying as test optional.
Can I change my mind about applying as test optional?
Upon application to Calvin as test optional, students agree to have their application reviewed for an admissions decision without scores. This means that after receiving an admissions decision you may not submit test scores in order to be considered for early admission to a specific academic program (i.e., early admission to Nursing or Speech Pathology). However, Calvin recognizes that standardized testing has been interrupted due to the pandemic and will work with applicants who want to submit scores but are not able to.
Special circumstances
- Students who choose test optional may be asked for additional information. The student's admissions representative or the admissions committee may request additional information such as a new writing sample or a letter of recommendation.
- Deferred students: Students who applied for a previous semester but did not attend and are now reapplying may now apply as test optional.
- Denied students: If a student chose to include test scores when applying for admission and was denied admission, Calvin will not re-review them as test optional. Students should go through the regular appeal process to appeal the denial and provide new academic information for consideration.
California Lutheran University is Test-Optional. Students seeking undergraduate admission are not required to submit standardized testing as a component of their application process.Â
This test optional policy aligns with the Office of Undergraduate Admission and its longstanding practice of holistic admissions. With an emphasis on student equity and access, the focus of evaluation will be based academic achievement, curriculum and rigor. This is further contextualized by letters of recommendation, access to resources and involvement beyond the classroom. The review process will also give consideration of the impact of an individualâs environment, community engagement and their ability to demonstrate success as a potential student at Cal Lutheran.
How to Apply Test-Optional  Â
On the Common Application for Cal Lutheran, you will have the option to indicate if you wish for your test scores to be considered as part of your application.
If you indicate âNo. I am applying test-optional,â we will not consider your ACT or SAT scores in your application review, regardless of how they are reported. For example, if you choose to apply test optional and will not be submitting test scores, and your scores appear on your high school transcript or in the self-reported score section of the Common Application, they will not be reviewed in the admission process. International students applying as test-optional will be contacted to complete an interview with an admission counselor.
You can change your Test-Optional status if your application has not been officially reviewed. Contact the Office of Admission to inquire about your application.
Admission Scholarships
Regardless of test score submission, all students will be considered for admission scholarships up to $30,000, renewable annually. Students may also qualify for our Public Price Promise and Visual and Performing Arts Scholarships. View Scholarships
How to Submit Test Scores
Students are still welcome to submit standardized testing if they believe it is an indication of their academic ability. They can either be submitted directly from ACT or College Board or using the Test score Form found in the Cal Lutheran application portal by the application deadline. Scores posted on the high school transcript or in the Common Application self-report section will not be considered.
- Cal Lutheran ACT code: 0183
- Cal Lutheran SAT code: 4088
Please note that your application will be considered complete once you have submitted all required materials and may be reviewed by our Admissions Committee even if your ACT/SAT scores have not been received.
Cal Lutheran's Test-Optional Policy is subject to change at the discretion of the Office of Undergraduate Admission.
How do I indicate that I want to apply without submitting test scores?
When completing your Common Application, indicate that you want to apply as test optional.
Can I change my mind after submitting my application?
Yes, but only if you contact us to update your test-optional status before your application has been officially reviewed.
What if I donât want my test scores considered, but they are submitted by a testing agency or posted on my transcripts?
As long as you indicate on your application that you are applying test optional, we will not use scores when reviewing your file.
If I apply test optional, will I still be considered for merit based aid and institutional scholarships?
Yes. All applicants are considered for most merit based and institutional scholarships.
Does this policy apply to transfer students?
No. Transfer students with less than 30 units are required to submit official high school transcripts and official transcripts for all college institutions attended.
Transfer students with more than 30 units will be evaluated on their college performance only.
Will Cal Lutheran superscore across test dates?
Yes. If you have taken the SAT or ACT more than once, we will take the highest scores you earned in each section.Â
Do you allow self reported test scores?
Yes, you can submit self-reported scores using the Test Score Form found in your Cal Lutheran application portal. We do not accept self-reported scores from the Common Application or transcripts. Enrolling students who were admitted with self-reported scores will be required to verify those scores by submitting an official score report prior to starting classes.
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